The lobe that is affected by the stroke is the temporal lobe. The typical signs and symptoms of a stroke are numbness, weakness, or paralysis of the face, arm, or leg, particularly on one side of the body.
What is a stroke?A stroke is a disease that occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted. When this happens, brain cells do not receive enough oxygen or nutrients and begin to die. Stroke is a leading cause of death and disability worldwide. There are two types of strokes: Ischemic stroke- It is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel in the brain. Hemorrhagic stroke- It occurs when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures or leaks.
The cerebral cortex is the outer layer of the brain. It is responsible for a variety of functions, including movement, sensation, perception, and cognition. It is divided into four main lobes: the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, and occipital lobe. The damage to specific regions of the cerebral cortex, such as through a stroke, can result in specific losses of function.
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QUESTION 9 The olfactory cortex where sensations of smell are picked up from olfactory neurons is located in this lobe of the cerebrum temporal lobe frontal lobe parietal lobe occipital lobe QUESTION 18 In the rhodopsin molecule contained within the photoreceptor cells called rods, the so called retinal portion changes from retinal as to light activates the molecule, causing the associated sodium and calcium channels to cis-retinal/trans-retinal / open trans-retinal / cis-retinal / close cis-retinal/trans-retinal / close trans-retinal / cis-retinal / open QUESTION 19 In the light configuration photoreceptor cells stop the release of the neurotransmitter that causes of cells glutamate/hyperpolarization / bipolar. glutamate / depolarization / bipolar Oglycine/hyperpolarization / ganglionic glutamate/hyperpolarization / ganglionic
9. The olfactory cortex, responsible for processing the sense of smell, is located in the temporal lobe of the cerebrum. This is the region where sensory information from olfactory neurons is received and interpreted. The temporal lobe plays a crucial role in various functions such as memory, language, and emotion, in addition to processing olfactory sensations.
18. In the rhodopsin molecule found in rod photoreceptor cells, the retinal portion undergoes a change from cis-retinal to trans-retinal when it is activated by light. This structural change triggers a cascade of events within the photoreceptor cell, ultimately leading to the opening of associated sodium and calcium channels. These open channels allow the influx of ions, which generates an electrical signal that is transmitted to the optic nerve and then to the visual processing centers in the brain.
19. In the presence of light, photoreceptor cells in the retina cease the release of the neurotransmitter glutamate. This cessation occurs in the configuration where the bipolar cells are hyperpolarized. Normally, in the dark, photoreceptor cells release glutamate, which signals the bipolar cells and initiates a chain of neural signals. However, when light is present, the photoreceptor cells become hyperpolarized, causing a reduction in glutamate release. This change in neurotransmitter release alters the signal processing in the retina and contributes to visual perception.
The olfactory cortex, responsible for processing the sense of smell, is located in the temporal lobe of the cerebrum. In the rhodopsin molecule within rod photoreceptor cells, light triggers a change from cis-retinal to trans-retinal, leading to the opening of ion channels. In the light configuration, photoreceptor cells stop the release of glutamate, affecting the signaling to bipolar cells in the retina. These processes are essential for the perception of smell and vision.
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After around 2 years of online classes, Fadi was asked to give an oral presentation on campus, in front of all his classmates. 10 minutes before his turn, he experienced sweating, fast heartbeat and a dry mouth. These symptoms persisted in Fadi's body even after he has returned to his seat. a- Explain what division of the ANS is activated in Fadi's body. b- Explain why the symptoms persisted in Fadi's body even after he has returned to his seat.
The Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) is responsible for regulating involuntary physiological functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate. It consists of two main divisions: the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
In Fadi's case, the sympathetic nervous system was activated. This activation led to symptoms like sweating, a fast heartbeat, and a dry mouth.
The sympathetic nervous system is part of the ANS and triggers the body's "fight or flight" response in stressful or emergency situations.
It increases heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and the release of glucose to provide energy to the muscles.
The symptoms persisted in Fadi's body even after he returned to his seat because the activation of the sympathetic nervous system can have a prolonged effect.
Once activated, it takes time for the body to return to a relaxed state.
Additionally, stress hormones like cortisol released during the stressful situation can persist in the body, prolonging the symptoms.
Therefore, due to the prolonged activation and the time it takes for the body to recover from stress, the symptoms continued even after Fadi returned to his seat.
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Review your responses to the previous questions on Kurt's diet, medication, and mechanisms at work. Are the changes to his blood pressure under short term or long term control? Are the mechanisms neural or hormonal?
Doctor's Visit #6: Kurt remained on the calcium channel blocker and loop diuretic, and after several months his cough went away and his blood pressure stabilized at 130/85 – a significant improvement. Kurt’s new diet also brought his total blood cholesterol down below 200 mg/dL. By improving two of his controllable risk factors, Kurt decreased his chances of having a heart attack, stroke, and organ system failure.
Kurt's blood pressure changes are under long term control. The mechanism involved is hormonal control.
What is blood pressure? Blood pressure is the force exerted by blood against the walls of blood vessels. When the heart beats, it pumps blood into the arteries, causing the pressure to rise. And when the heart rests between beats, the pressure falls. Blood pressure is determined by the amount of blood pumped by the heart and the amount of resistance to blood flow in the arteries.
A short-term mechanism for controlling blood pressure is neural regulation, which includes the baroreceptor reflex. The baroreceptor reflex is a negative feedback loop that helps to maintain blood pressure by decreasing it in response to increased blood volume.
On the other hand, hormonal regulation is a long-term mechanism for controlling blood pressure. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) are two examples of hormonal regulators that help to control blood pressure.
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The triangular gap between the vocal chords (when open) is called the glottis.
True or False
The given statement "The triangular gap between the vocal chords (when open) is called the glottis" is TRUE.
The term 'glottis' refers to the opening between the vocal cords of the larynx. The glottis is located at the base of the larynx, where the vocal cords extend out of the voice box and into the throat. It consists of two vocal cords (also known as vocal folds) that can vibrate to create sound when air is pushed through them.When the glottis is closed, it helps prevent food and liquid from entering the airways. When it opens, air passes through it, causing the vocal cords to vibrate and create sound.
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A 3-year-old boy is brought to you by his mom because she thinks he may have hearing. She says he is having difficulty learning to speak. His aunt is deaf. You review the boy's chart and realizes that this patient has been in many times before due to multiple fractures. PE shows small, discolored teeth, thin sclera with a blue hue, and multiple ecchymoses. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Achondroplasia
b) Rickets
c) Osteopetrosis
d) Osteogenesis imperfecta
The most likely diagnosis for the 3-year-old boy who is having difficulty learning to speak, has small, discolored teeth, thin sclera with a blue hue, multiple ecchymoses, and has had multiple fractures is D) Osteogenesis imperfecta.
Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a genetic disorder in which the bones in the body are very fragile and break easily. It is also known as Brittle Bone Disease. Because of defective collagen production, bones are weak, brittle, and deformable in Osteogenesis Imperfecta. It can cause frequent fractures and significant disability.The bones of children and babies are softer than those of adults, making them more prone to fracture. OI is primarily a pediatric illness.
The most common form of the disease is OI Type 1, which has the mildest symptoms. The life expectancy for children and adults with OI Type I is normal or near-normal.There are four primary categories of OI. Type I OI is the mildest form, while Type IV is the most serious. The severity of the disease, as well as the symptoms that occur, vary greatly based on the specific form of OI that a person has. The majority of OI cases are caused by dominant mutations in the genes that produce type I collagen.
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Compare and contrast the sensory and motor divisions of the PNS,
including example nerves that are dedicated to specific functions
within each division.
The sensory and motor divisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) differ in their functions and include specific nerves dedicated to sensory or motor activities.
Sensory Division: The sensory division of the PNS is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the body to the central nervous system (CNS). It includes sensory nerves that carry signals related to touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception. Examples of sensory nerves include the optic nerve (vision), the auditory nerve (hearing), and the olfactory nerve (smell). These nerves gather sensory input from various body parts and transmit it to the CNS for processing and interpretation.Motor Division: The motor division of the PNS is involved in transmitting motor commands from the CNS to the muscles and glands of the body. It controls voluntary movements, as well as involuntary functions. The motor division includes motor nerves that carry signals from the CNS to the muscles, causing them to contract or relax. Examples of motor nerves include the facial nerve (facial expressions), the phrenic nerve (diaphragm movement for breathing), and the sciatic nerve (leg movements). These nerves enable motor control and coordination throughout the body.While the sensory division focuses on gathering sensory information and transmitting it to the CNS, the motor division is responsible for conveying motor commands from the CNS to the appropriate target tissues. Together, these divisions ensure proper sensory perception and motor control.
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11. When the fluid enters the lymphatic capillaries, it is called plasma. TRUE OR FALSE
The following statement, "When the fluid enters the lymphatic capillaries, it is called plasma." is false. The fluid that enters the lymphatic capillaries is called lymph.
Lymphatic capillaries are small, thin-walled vessels in the lymphatic system that are found in nearly every tissue of the body. These vessels are a closed-end structure that is made up of endothelial cells that overlap one another and are only a single cell layer thick.
The overlapping cells that form these capillaries allow for the absorption of fluid, particles, and immune cells while preventing their leakage back into the interstitial fluid.When the fluid that enters the lymphatic capillaries is called lymph. Lymph is a transparent, colorless fluid that is composed of white blood cells, protein, and cellular debris, similar to the plasma that makes up blood. Hence, the statement "When the fluid enters the lymphatic capillaries, it is called plasma." is false.
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How many nociceptors are found in the human body? A. two B. five C. millions D. hundreds
Answer:
C. Millions
Explanation:
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Which three supporting (i.e., positive) roles do bacteria play in the human body?
Bacteria in the human body play supportive roles by aiding in digestion and nutrient absorption, supporting the immune system, and synthesizing essential compounds. These roles are vital for maintaining our overall health and well-being.
Bacteria play several important roles in the human body. Here are three supporting roles that bacteria have:
1. Gut health: Bacteria in the gut help with digestion and nutrient absorption. They break down complex carbohydrates and fiber that the human body cannot digest on its own, releasing beneficial byproducts like short-chain fatty acids. These bacteria also help produce vitamins, such as vitamin K and some B vitamins, which are essential for human health.
2. Immune system support: Certain bacteria stimulate the immune system, helping to strengthen and regulate its function. These bacteria help to train the immune system to recognize and respond to harmful pathogens, ultimately enhancing our ability to fight infections. They also compete with harmful bacteria for space and resources, preventing the colonization of pathogenic microbes.
3. Synthesis of essential compounds: Bacteria in the human body are capable of producing compounds that are necessary for our well-being. For instance, bacteria in the colon produce vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. Additionally, they produce certain neurotransmitters, such as serotonin, which are important for mood regulation and mental health.
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Which of the following molecules are digested by our
gastrointestinal system? need to explain
A Oligosaccharides
B glycerol
C fructose
D polysaccharides
The molecules that are digested by our gastrointestinal system are C. fructose and D polysaccharides
Fruits, honey, and other sweeteners all contain fructose, a simple sugar. It does not need to be digested by particular enzymes because it is absorbed in the small intestine by enhanced diffusion. However, consuming too much fructose might overload small intestine's ability to absorb nutrients, which can cause malabsorption and potential digestive problems in some people. Complex carbohydrates known as polysaccharides are made up of lengthy chains of sugar molecules.
Enzymes work in digestive tract to break down polysaccharides into smaller pieces for digestion. The enzyme amylase is created in mouth and further breaks down starch into smaller molecules known as maltose in the case of starch. Maltose and other polysaccharides are further broken down into individual glucose molecules in the small intestine by pancreatic amylase and other enzymes, which the body may then absorb and use.
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What allows the thoracic cavity to increase in volume during normal inspiration?
a. Contraction of the diaphragm upward and the external intercostal muscles lifting the ribs downward. b. Relaxing of the diaphragm upward and the external intercostal muscles lifting the ribs downward. c. Contraction of the diaphragm downward and the external intercostal muscles lifting the ribs upward. d. Relaxing of the diaphragm downward and the external intercostal muscles lifting the ribs upward.
Contraction of the diaphragm upward and the external intercostal muscles lifting the ribs downward allows the thoracic cavity to increase in volume during normal inspiration. The correct answer is option a.
During normal inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, while the external intercostal muscles between the ribs contract, lifting the ribs upward and outward. These actions increase the volume of the thoracic cavity.
The diaphragm's contraction expands the vertical dimension, while the lifting of the ribs by the external intercostal muscles expands the lateral dimension. This expansion creates a negative pressure inside the lungs, causing air to flow in and fill the lungs with oxygen.
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Full Question: What allows the thoracic cavity to increase in volume during normal inspiration?
a. Contraction of the diaphragm upward and the external intercostal muscles lifting the ribs downward.
b. Relaxing of the diaphragm upward and the external intercostal muscles lifting the ribs downward.
c. Contraction of the diaphragm downward and the external intercostal muscles lifting the ribs upward.
d. Relaxing of the diaphragm downward and the external intercostal muscles lifting the ribs upward.
Select the statements below that are true description of the events that occur during meiosis I. (select all that apply) A single diploid (2n) nucleus has become two haploid (n) nuclei. A. The parent cell finally gives rise to 4 haploid cells B. The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other. C. Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal chromosomes. D. The sister chromatids are separated from each other.
The correct options are (B) and (C). The following statements are the true descriptions of the events that occur during meiosis I are as follows:
The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other. (B)Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal chromosomes. (C)Meiosis I refer to the first round of meiotic cell division which divides homologous chromosomes into two haploid cells. The statements given below are the true descriptions of the events that occur during meiosis I:1.
The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other.2. Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal chromosomes. These two statements are true description of the events that occur during meiosis I. Hence, the correct options are (B) and (C).
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Write with a brief explanation for the following mistake in management of gastrointestinal bleeding. uploaded on The journal UEG
Education 2016: 16: 15-19 where they discussed ten errors.
a) Mistake no 7 :- Delaying the endoscopy until coagulopathy has been corrected
Delaying the endoscopy until coagulopathy has been corrected is a mistake in the management of gastrointestinal bleeding.
Delaying the endoscopy until coagulopathy has been corrected can have detrimental consequences in the management of gastrointestinal bleeding. Coagulopathy refers to a condition where the blood's ability to clot is impaired, potentially leading to prolonged bleeding. In cases of gastrointestinal bleeding, time is of the essence as prompt intervention can be crucial in identifying and treating the source of bleeding.
Performing an endoscopy early allows for a direct visualization of the gastrointestinal tract, enabling the identification of bleeding lesions and providing an opportunity for intervention. By delaying the procedure until coagulopathy has been corrected, valuable time is lost, which may result in continued bleeding, increased morbidity, and potential complications.
It is important to note that endoscopists are skilled in managing bleeding during the procedure, even in the presence of coagulopathy. They can employ various techniques such as thermal coagulation, hemostatic clips, or injection of agents to achieve hemostasis and control bleeding effectively. By addressing the source of bleeding promptly, the risk of further complications and the need for more invasive interventions can be minimized.
Overall, it is essential to prioritize early endoscopy in the management of gastrointestinal bleeding, even in the presence of coagulopathy. Timely intervention allows for immediate identification and treatment of bleeding sources, reducing the risks associated with delayed diagnosis and subsequent management.
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QUESTION 1 During embryonic development, which of the following brain vesicles will form the cerebrum? O diencephalon O myelencephalon O mesencephalon O metencephalon O telencephalon QUESTION 2 Major centers concerned with autonomic control of breathing, blood pressure, heart rate, and digestive activities are located in the O pons. O mesencephalon. O medulla oblongata. O cerebellum O diencephalon.
1. The brain vesicle that will form the cerebrum during embryonic development is the telencephalon.
2. The major centers concerned with autonomic control of breathing, blood pressure, heart rate, and digestive activities are located in the medulla oblongata.
1. During embryonic development, the telencephalon is the brain vesicle that will give rise to the cerebrum. The cerebrum is the largest and most complex part of the brain responsible for higher cognitive functions, sensory perception, motor control, and memory. It plays a crucial role in human consciousness and is divided into two cerebral hemispheres.
2. The major centers responsible for autonomic control of vital functions such as breathing, blood pressure, heart rate, and digestive activities are located in the medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata is located at the base of the brainstem, connecting the brain and spinal cord. It contains vital nuclei that regulate involuntary processes and reflexes necessary for maintaining homeostasis. The medulla controls functions like breathing rhythm, blood pressure regulation, heart rate, swallowing, and digestion. Damage or impairment to the medulla can have severe consequences on these essential autonomic functions.
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Which of the following is an organ of the alimentary canal( GI tract)? A. pancreas B. esophagus C. spleen D. liver
The correct option is B) esophagus .The esophagus is an organ of the alimentary canal that transports food from the mouth to the stomach through muscle contractions
The esophagus is an organ of the alimentary canal, also known as the digestive tract or gastrointestinal (GI) tract. It is a muscular tube that connects the mouth to the stomach. Its main function is to transport food from the mouth to the stomach through a process called peristalsis, which involves rhythmic contractions of the muscles in the esophageal walls.
Unlike the other options mentioned, the pancreas (A), spleen (C), and liver (D) are not part of the alimentary canal. The pancreas is an accessory organ that produces digestive enzymes and hormones to aid in the digestion and regulation of blood sugar levels. The spleen is a part of the lymphatic system and plays a role in filtering the blood and supporting the immune system. The liver is the largest internal organ and has various functions, including bile production, metabolism, detoxification, and storage of nutrients.
In summary, the correct option is B) esophagus it is an organ of the alimentary canal, responsible for the transport of food from the mouth to the stomach through peristalsis.
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What is the relationship between Positive Feedback and homeostasis? Homeostasis typically involves negative feedback loops that counteract changes of various properties from their target values, known as set points. In contrast to negative feedback loops, positive feedback loops amplify their stimuli, in other words, they move the systme away from its staring state.
Homeostasis, or the maintenance of a stable internal environment in an organism, is often achieved through the use of negative feedback loops. These feedback loops work to counteract changes from a set point by opposing the direction of the initial change.
Positive feedback loops, on the other hand, do the opposite. They amplify the stimulus, which leads to a further deviation from the set point and homeostasis. Positive feedback is therefore generally not involved in the maintenance of homeostasis.The relationship between positive feedback and homeostasis is not one of direct involvement, but rather one of opposition. While negative feedback works to maintain homeostasis by opposing changes from the set point, positive feedback amplifies the initial stimulus and can lead to a greater deviation from homeostasis.Positive feedback loops can be important in certain physiological processes, such as blood clotting and the birthing process, but they do not contribute to the overall maintenance of homeostasis.
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1. The cytopathologic feature of nodular lymphocyte prodominant Hodgkin lymphoma is
A. polymorphic variant tumor giant cells
B. popcorn cell
C. lacunar cell
D. multinucleate giant cell
E.R-S cells
2. The cytopathologic feature of Hodgkin lymphoma is
A. Tumor cells account for only 1%-5% of all cellular components in the diseased tissue
B. Tumor cells account for only 10% to 15% of all cellular components in the diseased tissue
C. Tumor cells account for only 20% to 25% of all cellular components in the diseased tissue
D. Tumor cells account for only 40%-45% of all cellular components in the diseased tissue
E. Tumor cells account for only 80%-85% of all cellular components in the diseased tissue
3. The cytopathological feature of nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma is
A.polymorphic variant tumor giant cells
B. popcorn cell
C. lacunar cell
D. multinucleate giant cell
E. R-S cells
4. Lymphoma of T-cell origin in the following options
A. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
B. Follicular lymphoma
C. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma
D. small lymphocytic lymphoma
E. Mycosis fungoides
5. Lymphoma of B cell origin in the following options
A. follicular lymphoma
B. peripheral T cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified
C. NK/T cell lymphoma
D. mycosis fungoides
E. leukemiod reaction
6. Microscopically, there are scattered macrophages between the tumor cells, and the lymphoma that forms the "starry-sky" image is
A. diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
B.follicular lymphoma
C.mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma small lymphocytic D.lymphoma
E.Burkitt lymphoma
1. The cytopathologic feature of nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma is E.R-S cells. The answer is (E).
2. The cytopathologic feature of Hodgkin lymphoma is E. Tumor cells account for only 80%-85% of all cellular components in the diseased tissue.
3. The cytopathological feature of nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma is the C. Lacunar cell.
4. Lymphoma of T-cell origin in the following options E. Mycosis fungoides.
5. Lymphoma of B cell origin in the following options A. follicular lymphoma.
6. Microscopically, there are scattered macrophages between the tumor cells, and the lymphoma that forms the "starry-sky" image is E. Burkitt lymphoma.
The definition of cytopathology is the study of cells from living and dead tissue to identify or diagnose disease. This type of work is useful in identifying cancers and other diseases. Cytologists, pathologists, and histologists are all likely to work with this type of research.
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• List the 3 complement pathways (+1). All 3 pathways converge at the formation of which enzyme? (+1) • Describe the difference between MHCI antigen presentation and MHCI antigen presentation. • Describe the function of the Fab site (+1) and Fc site (+1) of antibodies.
Complement pathways, Alternative pathway, Lectin pathway, Classical pathway.
All three pathways converge at the formation of a membrane attack complex (MAC).
Antigen presentation refers to the process in which antigen-presenting cells (APCs) display antigen fragments on their cell surface. This activates T-cells and initiates an immune response.
MHCI molecules are expressed on the surface of most nucleated cells. They bind and display short peptides (8-10 amino acids) derived from intracellular proteins. This is known as "MHCI antigen presentation."
MHCII molecules are expressed on specialized antigen-presenting cells (APCs) like dendritic cells, macrophages, and B-cells. They bind and display peptides derived from extracellular pathogens. This is referred to as "MHCII antigen presentation."
Fab stands for Fragment, antigen-binding. It is responsible for the antigen-binding activity of an antibody. The Fab site contains specific amino acid sequences that allow recognition and binding to a unique antigenic determinant.
Fc site, Fc stands for Fragment, crystallizable. It is responsible for the effector functions of an antibody. The Fc site interacts with Fc receptors on certain cells, leading to the activation of various immune effector mechanisms.
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genome-wide transcriptomic exploration of an exosomal mirna panel for predicting recurrence after surgery in patients with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma
The study aimed to explore the potential of a genome-wide transcriptomic analysis of exosomal miRNA panel for predicting recurrence in patients with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma after surgery.
In the study titled "Genome-wide transcriptomic exploration of an exosomal miRNA panel for predicting recurrence after surgery in patients with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma," the authors aimed to explore the potential of a genome-wide transcriptomic analysis of an exosomal miRNA panel for predicting recurrence after surgery in patients with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma.
The study found that a genome-wide transcriptomic analysis of exosomal miRNA panel could help in predicting recurrence after surgery in patients with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma. The study also showed that exosomal miRNA could act as a promising prognostic biomarker for pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma. Overall, the study highlights the potential of exosomal miRNA as a non-invasive biomarker for predicting recurrence after surgery in patients with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma.
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6. Identify major similarities and difference in the
timing, continuity, and relative output of gametogenesis between
males and females.
Gametogenesis in males and females differs in terms of timing, continuity, and relative output. Gametogenesis in males begins at puberty and continues throughout their lives, whereas in females, it begins during fetal development but is halted at prophase of the first meiotic division. Gametogenesis is then resumed at puberty and continues until menopause.
Continuity is continuous in males, meaning that they can produce gametes throughout their lifetime. In contrast, female gametogenesis is not continuous. After the onset of menopause, a female cannot produce more eggs.
Relative output Male gametogenesis produces four functional gametes (sperm) from each primary spermatocyte. On the other hand, female gametogenesis produces one functional gamete (egg) from each primary oocyte, and three polar bodies that eventually disintegrate. Thus, male gametogenesis produces four times more gametes than female gametogenesis.
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Ask a partner in anatomical position to abduct both shoulder joints to the point where her hands touch while you place your hands on both scapulae. What movement did the scapulae perform? Did the partner reach the end point through just abduction, or did the partner have to rotate each shoulder joint? If so, why was this necessary? In what direction?
When you ask a partner in anatomical position to abduct both shoulder joints to the point where her hands touch while you place your hands on both scapulae, the scapulae will perform two movements: retraction and upward rotation.
The partner had to rotate each shoulder joint in addition to abduction, and this was necessary because abduction alone would only have allowed the partner to raise her arms to approximately 90 degrees, but not all the way up to touch the hands above the head. Rotating the shoulders helps to lift the arms higher and achieve the end point by allowing the scapulae to move in two different directions, upward rotation and retraction.
The upward rotation occurs because of the serratus anterior muscle pulling the medial border of the scapula laterally while the upper fibers of the trapezius muscle lift the lateral edge of the scapula. Retraction occurs due to the middle fibers of the trapezius muscle pulling the medial border of the scapula towards the spine, along with the rhomboid minor and major muscles that assist with scapular retraction. In conclusion, the scapulae perform upward rotation and retraction when a partner abducts both shoulder joints to the point where their hands touch, and the partner had to rotate each shoulder joint in addition to abduction to achieve the end point
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According to the poiselle's low , if the radius of the
blood vessels decreases by 2; what happens to the resistance of
that blood vessel
According to Poiseuille's law, if the radius of a blood vessel decreases by 2, the resistance of that blood vessel will increase.
Poiseuille's law describes the relationship between the radius of a blood vessel, the flow rate of blood through the vessel, and the resistance to that flow. According to the law, the resistance (R) of a blood vessel is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its radius (r). In mathematical terms, the formula is R ∝ 1/r^4.
When the radius of a blood vessel decreases by 2, it means that the new radius is half of the original radius. If we substitute this new radius into the Poiseuille's law equation, we find that the resistance will increase significantly. Since the resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the radius, decreasing the radius by 2 will result in an increase of (1/0.5)^4 = 2^4 = 16 times in resistance.
In simpler terms, if the radius of a blood vessel decreases, the available space for blood to flow through becomes smaller. This reduction in space leads to increased friction between the blood and the vessel walls, which in turn increases the resistance to blood flow. Consequently, the heart has to work harder to pump the blood through the constricted blood vessels, leading to increased pressure within the vessels.
In summary, according to Poiseuille's law, when the radius of a blood vessel decreases by 2, the resistance to blood flow through that vessel increases significantly. This highlights the importance of maintaining healthy blood vessel function and avoiding conditions that can cause constriction or narrowing of the vessels.
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6.Functions of the Blood include: a. Option 3 C Protection against foreign substances b. Option 4 D Transport of regulatory molecules (hormones and enzymes). c. Option 5 E All of the above. d. Option 2B.Clot formation.
e. Option 1A. Carrier of gases, nutrients, and waste products. f. Other. _____
The function of the blood includes: Carrier of gases, nutrients, and waste products, Clot formation, Protection against foreign substances, and Transport of regulatory molecules (hormones and enzymes).
Blood is a specialized body fluid. It has four main components: plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Blood has many different functions, including: transporting oxygen and nutrients to the lungs and tissues. forming blood clots to prevent excess blood loss.
The blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells of the body, where it is needed for metabolism. The carbon dioxide produced during metabolism is carried back to the lungs by the blood, where it is then exhaled (breathed out).
Blood comes into the right atrium from the body, moves into the right ventricle and is pushed into the pulmonary arteries in the lungs. After picking up oxygen, the blood travels back to the heart through the pulmonary veins into the left atrium, to the left ventricle and out to the body's tissues through the aorta.
Therefore, the answer is option E. All of the above.
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A statistically significant result is proof that a difference in effect between two treatments exists. True/False Data preparation for summarizing clinical study results requires: a. Understanding of clinical trial conduct b. Understanding of study design c. Understanding of analytic plan d. All of the above e. None of the above
The statement is False and D. All of the above. A statistically significant result does not necessarily provide proof of a difference in effect between two treatments.
Statistical significance indicates that the observed difference in the study results is unlikely to have occurred by chance, but it does not establish causation or the magnitude of the effect. Additional factors, such as effect size, clinical relevance, and consistency across studies, need to be considered to draw meaningful conclusions about the presence and significance of a treatment difference.
For data preparation in summarizing clinical study results, all of the options (a. Understanding of clinical trial conduct, b. Understanding of study design, and c. Understanding of analytic plan) are necessary. Data summarization requires a comprehensive understanding of the clinical trial's conduct, including the protocol, patient population, and data collection processes.
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A statistically significant result indeed suggests that a difference exists between the effects of two treatments. Furthermore, to prepare data for summarizing clinical study results, an understanding of clinical trial conduct, study design, and the analytic plan is required.
Explanation:The statement that a statistically significant result is proof that a difference in effect between two treatments exists is True. Statistical significance in this context means that the likelihood of the results happening by chance is less than 5%, indicating a meaningful difference between two groups. Therefore, a statistically significant result demonstrates a significant effect difference between two treatments (e.g., in a clinical trial).
The data preparation for summarizing clinical study results indeed requires: a. Understanding of clinical trial conduct, b. Understanding of study design, c. Understanding of analytic plan. So, the answer is d. All of the above. These components are necessary to ensure that the study is conducted and executed in a scientifically valid and ethically sound manner.
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When the lungs are in the rest phase of the breathing cycle (Select all that apply.) the diaphragm is relaxed the alveolar pressure decreases in preparation for the next phase of the breathing cycle a pressure gradient does not exist between the alveolar and atmospheric pressures the diaphragm is contracted the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure
The correct statements regarding the lungs in the rest phase of the breathing cycle are:1. The diaphragm is relaxed.2. The alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure.3. A pressure gradient does not exist between the alveolar and atmospheric pressures.
The breathing cycle is a process that involves two phases: the inspiration and expiration phases. Inspiration phase involves the inhalation of oxygen-rich air into the lungs whereas expiration phase involves the expulsion of carbon dioxide-rich air out of the lungs.
When the lungs are in the rest phase of the breathing cycle, the diaphragm is relaxed and the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. The pressure gradient does not exist between the alveolar and atmospheric pressures. Hence, options A, B and C are correct. However, the diaphragm is not contracted during this phase. So, option D is incorrect.
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1. Describe the components of blood with a rough description of the relative proportion of each ingredient in blood.
2. Explain the role of blood in transporting nutrients and gasses throughout the body
3. Describe how red blood cell structure relates to its function; Describe the role of hemoglobin in red blood cell function; Explain how iron (Fe) facilitates the function of hemoglobin.
4. Explain what is meant by the terms blood type, antigen.
5. Explain the role of clotting in hemostasis
1. Components of blood with a rough description of the relative proportion of each ingredient in blood:Blood is a fluid that circulates throughout the body. It is made up of several components, including red blood cells, white blood cells, plasma, and platelets.
Here is a list of the components and their proportions:- Red blood cells (erythrocytes) - 45% of the blood volume- White blood cells (leukocytes) and platelets (thrombocytes) - 1% of the blood volume- Plasma - 55% of the blood volume
2. Role of blood in transporting nutrients and gases throughout the body:Blood is responsible for transporting oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to cells throughout the body. It also removes carbon dioxide and other waste products from the body. This is possible because of the hemoglobin in red blood cells, which binds to oxygen and allows it to be carried through the bloodstream.
3. Red blood cell structure relates to its function:Red blood cells have a unique shape that allows them to travel through small blood vessels. They are biconcave disks with no nucleus. This shape provides a large surface area for oxygen exchange, allowing them to transport oxygen efficiently.
Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that binds to oxygen. Iron (Fe) is a critical component of hemoglobin, and it is necessary for its function. Iron binds to oxygen in the lungs and then releases it in the tissues that need it.
4. Blood type and antigen:Blood type refers to the classification of blood based on the presence or absence of certain antigens on the surface of red blood cells. Antigens are molecules that trigger an immune response. There are four main blood types: A, B, AB, and O. Blood type is essential for transfusions because a person's immune system can reject blood that has antigens that they don't have.
5. Role of clotting in hemostasis:Clotting, or coagulation, is the process by which blood forms clots to stop bleeding. It is a crucial part of hemostasis, which is the body's response to an injury.
Clotting involves a series of steps that result in the formation of fibrin, a protein that creates a mesh-like structure to trap blood cells and stop bleeding. Without clotting, even minor injuries could be life-threatening.
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A) From the online LHASA carcinogenicity database what is the lowest concentration of tamoxifen that causes liver cancer in rats?
The lowest concentration to cause cancer in liver cancer in rats is 5.61 mg/kg/day.
Rat Female Live Lhasa TD50 (mg/kg/day): 5.61
Rat Male Liver Lhasa TD50 (mg/kg/day): 5.61
B) Woman taking tamoxifen are normally prescribed a dose of 20 mg per day. Given that the average weight of a woman is 70 kg how does this compare to answer B above?
From the online LHASA carcinogenicity database, the lowest concentration of tamoxifen that causes liver cancer in rats is 5.61 mg/kg/day.
A woman taking tamoxifen is normally prescribed a dose of 20 mg per day. Given that the average weight of a woman is 70 kg, the woman would be taking 0.29 mg/kg/day. It is a significantly lower dose than the one that caused liver cancer in rats. It is important to note that rat studies cannot be extrapolated directly to humans, and human dosages are calculated based on safety and efficacy studies, clinical trials, and years of experience.
Tamoxifen is a drug that is utilized to treat breast cancer that has spread to other parts of the body (metastatic breast cancer) or that has not responded to other therapies such as surgery and radiation. It is also utilized to reduce the risk of breast cancer in women who are at high risk for developing the illness. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator, which means it functions by binding to estrogen receptors on cancer cells and preventing estrogen from activating these cells.
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As a drug formulation, tablets:
W. May be formulated to increase the duration of action of drugs with a short half-life
X. Have a bioavailability of less than 100%
Y. May be formulated to allow disintegration in the intestines rather than in the stomach
Z. Should never be crushed or chewed
a.
only W, X and Y are correct
b.
only W and Y are correct
c.
only X and Z are correct
d.
only Z is correct
e.
all are correct
As a drug formulation, tablets have different properties and uses. The correct options are:a. only W, X, and Y are correct.
W. May be formulated to increase the duration of action of drugs with a short half-lifeTablets can be formulated to increase the duration of action of drugs with a short half-life. This is achieved through slow release formulations. This is important for drugs such as painkillers where the relief is required for a long period of time.X. Have a bioavailability of less than 100%Tablets may not have a bioavailability of less than 100%. This is because they undergo hepatic metabolism and the first-pass effect that reduces their bioavailability.
It is for this reason that parenteral preparations such as injections are preferred for drugs that require urgent treatment.Y. May be formulated to allow disintegration in the intestines rather than in the stomachSome tablets are formulated to allow disintegration in the intestines rather than in the stomach. This is necessary for drugs that require absorption in the small intestines.Z. Should never be crushed or chewed Some tablets should never be crushed or chewed as this may lead to degradation of the active pharmaceutical ingredient. This may reduce the effectiveness of the drug.
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platelet plug don't dislodge from damage endothelial site??
A platelet plug does not dislodge from a damaged endothelial site. The damaged endothelial site contains collagen and von Willebrand factor, which activate platelets to aggregate forming a platelet plug.
A platelet plug is a mass of platelets that is produced as a result of a blood vessel's damaged endothelial surface. The exposed subendothelial connective tissue includes collagen and von Willebrand factor, which activates platelets to aggregate into a mass known as a platelet plug.
The platelet plug adheres to the endothelium at the injury site, and the platelets release chemicals to promote coagulation. This helps to stop blood loss by filling in the gap and enabling the clotting process to start. The platelet plug is kept in place by the formation of a fibrin meshwork, which is created by the coagulation cascade.
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Arrange the sequence of events involved with muscle contraction in the correct order. Begin with "Ca2+ binds to troponin . . ."
#1 A power stroke occurs. This is a process whereby ADP and Pi are released and the activated myosin head pivots sliding the thin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere.
#2 The cocked activated myosin head of the thick filament binds to the active site on thin filament, forming a cross bridge.
#3 A new ATP binds to the myosin head, weakening the bond between the myosin head and thin filament.
#4 Ca2+ binds to troponin on the thin (actin) filaments.
#5 Troponin-tropomyosin complex on thin filaments changes shape exposing active sites along the thin filaments. The active sites serve as sites for binding to myosin heads.
#6 ATP bound to the myosin head of the thick filament is hydrolyzed to ADP and phosphate (Pi).
#7 ADP and Pi remains bound to the myosin head and the energy released from the hydrolysis of ATP activates the myosin head forcing it into the "cocked" position
#8 Myosin head detachment occurs, breaking the crossbridge.
#9 Myosin hydrolyzes the new ATP bound and uses the energy released to "recock" the myosin head, preparing the myosin head to repeat cross bridge cycle.
The main sequence of events in muscle contraction can be summarized as follows:
1. Ca2+ binds to troponin, exposing active sites on the thin filaments.
2. Myosin binds to the active site, forming a crossbridge.
3. Power stroke occurs, resulting in sliding of the thin filaments.
4. Myosin detaches, and the cycle continues with ATP binding and recocking of the myosin head.
The correct sequence of events involved in muscle contraction is as follows:
1. Ca2+ binds to troponin on the thin (actin) filaments.
2. Troponin-tropomyosin complex on thin filaments changes shape, exposing active sites along the thin filaments.
3. The cocked activated myosin head of the thick filament binds to the active site on the thin filament, forming a crossbridge.
4. Power stroke occurs. This is a process whereby ADP and Pi are released, and the activated myosin head pivots, sliding the thin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere.
5. Myosin head detachment occurs, breaking the crossbridge.
6. A new ATP binds to the myosin head, weakening the bond between the myosin head and thin filament.
7. Myosin hydrolyzes the new ATP bound and uses the energy released to "recock" the myosin head, preparing it to repeat the crossbridge cycle.
It's important to note that this sequence repeats as long as there is sufficient Ca2+ and ATP available for muscle contraction to continue.
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